2

  1. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?
    • a network that protects confidential information from unauthorized access
    • a network that can expand quickly to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service delivered to existing users
    • a network that supports a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all users
    • a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and depends on redundancy to limit the impact of a failure*
  2. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?
    • End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
    • Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.*
    • Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
    • Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
  3. What is the function of the shell in an OS?
    • It interacts with the device hardware.
    • It interfaces between the users and the kernel.*
    • It provides dedicated firewall services.
    • It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
  4. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?
    • a console connection
    • an AUX connection
    • a Telnet connection
    • an SSH connection*
  5. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?
    • The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*
    • The command syntax is wrong.
    • The subnet mask information is incorrect.
    • The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.
  6. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?
    • wiki
    • e-mail
    • weblog
    • instant messaging*
  7. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
    • regenerating data signals*
    • acting as a client or a server
    • providing a channel over which messages travel
    • applying security settings to control the flow of data *
    • notifying other devices when errors occur*
    • serving as the source or destination of the messages
  8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
    • to restart the ping process
    • to interrupt the ping process*
    • to exit to a different configuration mode
    • to allow the user to complete the command
  9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
    A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1
    • letmein
    • secretin
    • linevtyin*
    • lineconin
  10. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? 
    • flash memory*
    • NVRAM?
    • RAM
    • ROM
    • a TFTP server?
  11. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?
    • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
    • PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
    • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*
    • PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
  12. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?
    • a console connection
    • an AUX connection
    • a Telnet connection
    • an SSH connection*
  13. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
    • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
    • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
    • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*
    • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
  14. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?
    • FastEthernet0/1
    • VLAN 1*
    • vty 0
    • console 0
  15. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?
    • TCP*
    • IP
    • HTTP
    • Ethernet
  16. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?
    • A company can monopolize the market.
    • The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
    • An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
    • It encourages competition and promotes choices.*
  17. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)
    • It assists in protocol design. *
    • It speeds up packet delivery.* *
    • It prevents designers from creating their own model.
    • It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.*
    • It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
  18. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
    • data link
    • network*
    • physical
    • session
    • transport*
  19. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?
    • bits
    • data
    • frame
    • packet
    • segment*
  20. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
    • presentation layer
    • network layer
    • physical layer*
    • data link layer
  21. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
    • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
    • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
    • the type of traffic that is crossing the network *
    • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
    • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
    • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
  22. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
    • cancellation*
    • cladding
    • immunity to electrical hazards
    • woven copper braid or metallic foil
  23. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
    • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*
    • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
    • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
    • It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
    • It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.*
  24. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
    • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
    • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
    • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*
    • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
  25. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?
    • mesh
    • partial mesh*
    • hub and spoke
    • point-to-point
  26. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
    • CSMA/CD
    • priority ordering
    • CSMA/CA*
    • token passing
  27. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
    • It will discard the frame.*
    • It will forward the frame to the next host.
    • It will remove the frame from the media.
    • It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
  28. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?
    • cut-through switching
    • store-and-forward switching*
    • fragment-free switching
    • fast-forward switching
  29. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?
    CCNA1 Final Exam v5.1 004
    • DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
    • 172.168.10.99
    • CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
    • 172.168.10.65
    • BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB*
    • AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
  30. What addresses are mapped by ARP?
    • destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address*
    • destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
    • destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
    • destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address
  31. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)
    • performing error detection
    • routing packets toward the destination *
    • encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer*
    • placement of frames on the media
    • collision detection
  32. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
    • to store the routing table
    • to retain contents when power is removed *
    • to store the startup configuration file*
    • to contain the running configuration file
    • to store the ARP table
  33. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.
    • The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.*
  34. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
    • 192.0.2.199
    • 198.51.100.201
    • 203.0.113.211*
    • 209.165.201.223
  35. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)
    • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
    • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts. *
    • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information. *
    • Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*
    • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
    • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
  36. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)
    • 10.0.0.0/8*
    • 64.100.0.0/14
    • 127.16.0.0/12
    • 172.16.0.0/12*
    • 192.31.7.0/24
    • 192.168.0.0/16*
  37. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?
    • It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.*
    • It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.
    • It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.
    • It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.
    • It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.
  38. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
    • 2001:0:abcd::1
    • 2001:0:0:abcd::1*
    • 2001::abcd::1
    • 2001:0000:abcd::1
    • 2001::abcd:0:1
  39. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
    • FEC0::/10
    • FDEE::/7
    • FE80::/10*
    • FF00::/8
  40. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?
    • 254
    • 190
    • 192
    • 62*
    • 64
  41. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.128*
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
  42. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
    • 192.168.1.64/26*
    • 192.168.1.32/27
    • 192.168.1.32/28
    • 192.168.1.64/29
  43. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?
    • Each subnet is the same size.
    • The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*
    • Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
    • Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.
  44. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
    • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
    • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
    • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.*
    • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
  45. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify which of the three web browsers should receive the reply?
    • the destination IP address
    • the destination port number*
    • the source IP address
    • the source port number
  46. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)
    • to identify missing segments at the destination *
    • to reassemble the segments at the remote location*
    • to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination
    • to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time
    • to determine if the packet changed during transit
  47. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
    • compression*
    • addressing
    • encryption*
    • session control
    • authentication
  48. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?
    • wireless networking
    • social networking without the Internet
    • network printing using a print server
    • resource sharing without a dedicated server*
  49. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?
    • tracert
    • ipconfig
    • netstat
    • nslookup*
  50. Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?
    • www.cisco.com
    • cisco.com
    • .com*
    • root.cisco.com
  51. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
    • The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
    • The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
    • The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.*
    • The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.
  52. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?
    • FTP
    • HTTP
    • DHCP*
    • ICMP
    • SNMP
  53. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?
    • malware that was written to look like a video game*
    • malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
    • malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched
    • malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target
  54. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used.)
    • Question
      CCNA1 Final Exam v5.1 001 Question
    • Answer
      CCNA1 Final Exam v5.1 001 Answer
  55. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?
    • LAN
    • MAN
    • WAN*
    • WLAN
  56. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
    • DSL*
    • dial-up
    • satellite
    • cell modem
    • cable modem
  57. How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and services?
    • by limiting the impact of a network failure
    • by allowing quick recovery from network failures
    • by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic*
    • by providing the ability for the network to grow to accommodate new users
  58. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?
    • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
    • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
    • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
    • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
  59. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?
    CCNA1 Final Exam v5.1 005
    • letmein
    • secretin*
    • lineconin
    • linevtyin
  60. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?
    • a console connection
    • an AUX connection
    • a Telnet connection
    • an SSH connection*
  61. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?
    • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
    • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
    • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
    • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*
  62. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?
    • internet*
    • transport
    • network access
    • session
  63. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?
    • Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
    • Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
    • Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.*
    • Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
  64. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an Ethernet network?
    • host address
    • IP address
    • MAC address*
    • network address
    • k layer
  65. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
    • requiring proper grounding connections
    • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*
    • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
    • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
    • avoiding sharp bends during installation
  66. hat purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6
  67. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?
    • An IP address is added.
    • The logical address is added.
    • The physical address is added.*
    • The process port number is added.
  68. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)
    • error correction through a collision detection method
    • session control using port numbers
    • data link layer addressing*
    • placement and removal of frames from the media
    • detection of errors through CRC calculations *
    • delimiting groups of bits into frames*
    • conversion of bits into data signals
  69. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
    • They are globally unique.*
    • They are routable on the Internet.
    • They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.*
    • MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
    • MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces on a device.
  70. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?
    • drop the frame*
    • process the frame as it is
    • send an error message to the sending device
    • add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and then forward it
  71. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)
    • The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address. *
    • The destination address is unknown to the switch.*
    • The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
    • The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
    • The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.
  72. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?
    • cut-through
    • store-and-forward
    • fragment-free
    • fast-forward*
  73. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
    • netstat -s
    • route print*
    • show ip route
    • netstat -r*
    • tracert
  74. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
    • packet forwarding*
    • microsegmentation
    • domain name resolution
    • path selection*
    • flow control
  75. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?
    • 10111010
    • 11010101
    • 11001010*
    • 11011010
  76. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?
    • link-local*
    • unique local
    • site local
    • global unicast
  77. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?
    • stateful DHCPv6
    • SLAAC*
    • static IPv6 addressing
    • stateless DHCPv6
  78. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?
    • It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.*
    • It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
    • It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
    • It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.
  79. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?
    • 256
    • 254
    • 62
    • 30*
    • 16
    • 32
  80. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
    Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
    Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
    Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

    What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.240*
    • 255.255.255.248
    • 255.255.255.252
  81. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.128
    • 255.255.255.192*
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240

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